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Nov 13, 2022 at 0:23 comment added Anton Sherwood Does use in names count? The Elvish word palantír (literally far-seer) has been the name of at least two businesses.
Apr 29, 2018 at 2:12 history protected curiousdannii
Apr 28, 2018 at 23:43 answer added loghaD timeline score: 4
Apr 26, 2018 at 5:07 answer added Davislor timeline score: 8
Apr 18, 2018 at 11:50 history edited curiousdannii
edited tags
Mar 12, 2018 at 16:06 vote accept Sir Cornflakes
S Mar 11, 2018 at 8:55 history suggested Duncan CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed grammar, improved formatting
Mar 10, 2018 at 15:56 review Suggested edits
S Mar 11, 2018 at 8:55
Mar 10, 2018 at 12:58 comment added beroal But language names are boring.
Mar 9, 2018 at 22:29 review Close votes
Mar 17, 2018 at 17:32
Mar 9, 2018 at 16:54 comment added Luís Henrique Do derivations count? Portuguese has esperantista - enthusiast or practicioner of Esperanto - for instance.
Mar 9, 2018 at 15:58 comment added Sir Cornflakes ... when the set phrase really has escaped the narrower context of the fictional work it comes from, yes.
Mar 9, 2018 at 14:52 answer added Radovan Garabík timeline score: 5
Mar 9, 2018 at 14:11 comment added curiousdannii What about set phrases, like "valar morghulis" for example?
Mar 9, 2018 at 10:09 comment added Sir Cornflakes Why not? The example of Danish volapyk is perfectly cromulent, IMO. It should of course function as a word in the language and not just a label to denote the respective conlang.
Mar 9, 2018 at 1:08 comment added Adalynn I'm assuming language names do not count, even if the orthography is modified slightly?
Mar 8, 2018 at 19:52 answer added Gufferdk timeline score: 11
Mar 8, 2018 at 17:15 answer added caconyrn timeline score: 14
Mar 8, 2018 at 15:46 history asked Sir Cornflakes CC BY-SA 3.0